quote:
Originally posted by Flap
There's no reason why the number of gun-related killings would have been significantly higher in any recent 2 year period than in any other. And even if the 2 years in question were "particularly bad," unless you mean "1000s of times the norm" then the number is still going to be enormous.
What I'm getting at, is that maybe 20 years ago the numbers weren't so high. Yet 20 years ago guns were probably still quite common in America. This only tells me that in the last two years there have been alot of deaths from guns.
quote:
You must be joking, surely. Is almost 60,000 people "a lot"? Do you need me to answer that? And your point about the total deaths from other causes is irrelevant, since the whole point of that statistic is that this many died purely from gunshot wounds.
Sorry, no joke here. I don't consider the other causes irrelevant, because alot of people die everyday from many different causes. If firearms killed more than all other causes combined, than you'd be on to something. This just shows me that close to 60000 people die from firearms.
Are you positive about 60000 people dying in two years from firearms? Adding up all homicide(and legal intervention)statistics for 1996, for age groups up to 44, I got 16717. Over two years(assuming for simplicity that the numbers stay the same) that is 33434 deaths. This does not take into account the 45+ age group because homicides are included as all other causes. Now when they say homicide, they mean all forms, not just firearms.
It's very possible that more people are dying in the last 2 years, but do you see how big of a jump 60000 homicides(from firearms alone) would be? Perhaps your website is padding this statistic with accients and sucides?
How many people overall died in 1996? 2,293,629 people. True, this is the total of all age categories, and I wasn't able to calculate the homicides for over 45. Even if we raised the number of homicides to 30000, that still doesn't account for even 2% of the deaths in 1996.
Well, at least I got evidence today.
http://www.disastercenter.com/cdc quote:
Originally said by Flap:
It isn't true that in other countries we have the same number of murders but by different means. As I've said before, this isn't the case because it's much more difficult to kill people with knives, fists etc. You can't do a drive-by stabbing, for example.
That is a good point. Drive by shootings, efficient long range assasinations, full automatic
slaughtering, these are all examples of how guns are more of a danger to society. However, I'm thinking of homicides or confrontations. These would usually be at short ranges and on foot. In the end, someone is gonna get killed or badly injured.
Interesting thing I found
http://www.ojp.usdoj.gov/bjs/homicide/weapons.htmhttp://www.ojp.usdoj.gov/bjs/homicide/tables/weaponstab.htmAs you can see, despite guns being so popular in the US for crime, there have been a sizeable amount of murders commited by non-firearm weapons. Why?
quote:
Originally posted by Flap
I don't see how the other points aren't applicable. I could understand you questioning the accuracy if there was only a small difference, for example if the armed robberies rate was quoted as being, say, 130% the American rate, but 1000%? How innacurate do you think they could be?
Well you gave me a run for my money logic wise, so I had to re-examine my points.
Sometimes anti-gun sites post misconceptions or even lie. In all fairness pro-gun sites probably do the same. If your statistic is definitly accurate, than that is very interesting! It's just that the difference seems so amazing, 100 times the rate of the US! I have trouble imagining that firearms could make such a huge difference, but it could be true.